CLAT PG Mock Legal Practice Questions August 2026

Legal Bites presents the CLAT PG Mock Legal Practice Questions – August 2026, carefully designed to sharpen your preparation strategy and elevate your legal aptitude for the upcoming examination. In today’s highly competitive landscape, where question patterns are becoming increasingly dynamic and judgment-centric, consistent practice with well-curated, concept-driven questions is indispensable.

CLAT PG Mock Legal Practice Questions

August 2026

I. Thomas Acqunis described natural law as “Rational creatures are subject to divine providence in a very special way being themselves made participators in providence itself, in that way they control their own actions and actions of others. So they have a certain share in divine reason itself, deriving therefrom natural inclination to such actions and ends as are fitting. This participation in internal law, by rational creatures is called as natural law.” Rational beings, sharing in divine reason, are naturally inclined to appropriate actions and ends, which defines natural law. Aquinas classified laws into four categories: God’s law, natural law revealed through human reason, divine law or the law of scriptures, and human laws. Natural law is a component of Divine Law. It is the part that manifests itself in natural reason. It is used by humans to manage their affairs and relationships. Aquinas’ scheme of categorizing laws into four categories: eternal law, natural law, divine law, and human law is regarded as the first of its kind in the history of jurisprudence.

[Extracted from Siddhi Shridhar Kalamkar, “Relevance of Natural Law Theory in the Contemporary Era in India,” Indian Journal of Integrated Research in Law, Vol. IV, Issue V, ISSN: 2583-0538.]

1. According to Thomas Aquinas, natural law is best understood as:

A. Law enacted exclusively by political authorities

B. The participation of rational creatures in divine reason

C. Rules derived solely from judicial precedents

D. Commands contained exclusively in scriptures

Answer: B

2. Natural law, according to Aquinas, manifests itself primarily through:

A. Political sovereignty

B. Judicial decisions

C. Natural reason

D. Religious institutions

Answer: C

3. Which of the following correctly represents Aquinas’ scheme of classification of laws as stated at the end of the passage?

A. Eternal law, natural law, divine law and human law

B. Divine law, constitutional law, customary law and human law

C. Eternal law, positive law, international law and natural law

D. Natural law, customary law, judicial law and statutory law

Answer: A

4. Who famously developed the idea of natural law in Roman jurisprudential thought and regarded true law as right reason in agreement with nature?

A. Cicero

B. Bentham

C. Savigny

D. Austin

Answer: A

5. Lon L. Fuller is associated with the idea of:

A. Grundnorm

B. Command of the sovereign

C. Internal morality of law

D. Volksgeist

Answer: C

II. The forerunner of sociological jurisprudence was Montesquieu, who was the first to apply the-fundamental principle which sociological jurists assume. In L’Esprit des Lois, he expounded the thesis that a system of law is a living growth and development interrelated with the physical and societal environment. The great impetus to the movement in modern times was furnished by Rudolph von Jhering, who revolted against the jurisprudence of conceptions of the historical-metaphysical school. Whereas juristic activity was centered around speculation as to the nature of law, Jhering emphasized consideration of the function and end of law. He stressed the social purpose of law and insisted that law should be brought into harmony with changing social conditions. His thesis was that the protection of individual rights is dictated by social considerations only. What are termed “natural rights” are nothing more than legally protected social interests. The individual’s welfare is not an end in itself but is recognized only insofar as it aids in securing the welfare of society. The basic ideas of Jhering, called social utilitarianism, stand as a link between Bentham’s individual utilitarianism and two important movements of the twentieth century; the “jurisprudence of interests” in Germany and the sociological jurisprudence of Roscoe Pound.

[Extracted from James A. Gardner, “The Sociological Jurisprudence of Roscoe Pound (Part I),” Villanova Law Review, Vol. 7, Issue 1, 1961.]

6. Who is regarded as the forerunner of sociological jurisprudence?

A. Rudolph von Jhering

B. Jeremy Bentham

C. Montesquieu

D. Roscoe Pound

Answer: C

7. According to the passage, the great impetus to sociological jurisprudence in modern times was furnished by:

A. Roscoe Pound

B. Montesquieu

C. Jeremy Bentham

D. Rudolph von Jhering

Answer: D

8. Jhering revolted against which approach to jurisprudence?

A. Analytical positivism

B. The jurisprudence of conceptions of the historical-metaphysical school

C. Natural law jurisprudence

D. Legal realism

Answer: B

9. According to Jhering’s thesis, the protection of individual rights is dictated by:

A. Social considerations

B. Natural law considerations

C. Divine commands

D. Individual autonomy alone

Answer: A

10. Which two twentieth-century movements are connected with Jhering’s social utilitarianism according to the passage?

A. Legal realism and analytical positivism

B. Historical jurisprudence and natural law

C. Jurisprudence of interests in Germany and sociological jurisprudence of Roscoe Pound

D. Scandinavian realism and American legal realism

Answer: C

III. The intergovernmental effort to promote the codification and development of international law made a further important advance with the resolution of the Assembly of the League of Nations of 22 September 1924, envisaging the creation of a standing organ called the Committee of Experts for the Progressive Codification of International Law, which was to be composed so as to represent “the main forms of civilization and the principal legal systems of the world.” This Committee, consisting of seventeen experts, was to prepare a list of subjects “the regulation of which by international agreement” was most “desirable and realizable” and thereafter to examine the comments of Governments on this list and report on the questions which were “sufficiently ripe,” as well as on the procedure to be followed in preparing for conferences for their solution. This was the first attempt on a worldwide basis to codify and develop whole fields of international law rather than simply regulating individual and specific legal problems. After certain consultations with Governments and the League Council, the Assembly decided, in 1927, to convene a diplomatic conference to codify three topics out of the five that had been considered to be “ripe for international agreement” by the Committee of Experts, namely: (1) nationality, (2) territorial waters and (3) the responsibility of States for damage done in their territory to the person or property of foreigners. The preparation of the conference was entrusted to a Preparatory Committee of five persons which was to draw up reports showing points of agreement or divergency which might serve as “bases of discussion,” but not to draw up draft conventions as had been proposed by the Committee of Experts.

[Extracted from United Nations, The Work of the International Law Commission, Eighth Edition, Volume I, United Nations Publication, New York, 2012.]

11. The Committee of Experts for the Progressive Codification of International Law was envisaged by a resolution adopted by:

A. The Council of the League of Nations in 1927

B. The Assembly of the League of Nations on 22 September 1924

C. The United Nations General Assembly in 1924

D. The Permanent Court of International Justice in 1927

Answer: B

12. The composition of the Committee of Experts was intended to represent:

A. Only the major European legal systems

B. States having permanent membership in the League Council

C. The main forms of civilization and the principal legal systems of the world

D. Only States following the common law and civil law traditions

Answer: C

13. How many experts constituted the Committee of Experts?

A. Five

B. Ten

C. Seventeen

D. Twenty-one

Answer: C

14. Which of the following was NOT among the three topics selected in 1927 for codification at a diplomatic conference?

A. Nationality

B. Territorial waters

C. Responsibility of States for damage to foreigners

D. Diplomatic immunity

Answer: D

15. Which body was entrusted with the preparation of the diplomatic conference?

A. Permanent Court of International Justice

B. League Council alone

C. Preparatory Committee of five persons

D. Committee of Experts consisting of seventeen persons

Answer: C

IV. The name “United Nations” was coined by U.S. President Franklin D. Roosevelt. It was first officially used on 1 January 1942, when representatives of 26 nations signed the Declaration by United Nations in Washington. Through this Declaration, the signatory nations pledged to continue their collective struggle against the Axis powers and agreed not to enter into a separate peace or settlement with the enemy.

An important step towards the establishment of the United Nations was taken at the Moscow Conference of 1943. In October 1943, the Foreign Ministers of Britain, the United States, the Soviet Union and China met in Moscow. A joint declaration was issued following the Conference.

The participating powers recognised the need to establish, at the earliest practicable date, a general international organisation for maintaining international peace and security after the war. It was agreed that the proposed organisation would be based on the principle of the “sovereign equality” of all peace-loving states, whether large or small.

Thus, the Moscow Declaration of 1943 marked the first formal commitment by the major Allied powers to establish a general international organisation, which ultimately took shape as the United Nations.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from Tirthankar Hudati & Archana Das, “The Establishment of the United Nations: A Study of its Formation and its Contribution,” International Journal of Innovative Research in Technology (IJIRT), Vol. 12, Issue 3, August 2025, ISSN: 2349-6002.]

16. Who devised the name “United Nations”?

A. Winston Churchill

B. Franklin D. Roosevelt

C. Joseph Stalin

D. Woodrow Wilson

Answer: B

17. The term “United Nations” was first officially used in connection with:

A. The Moscow Declaration, 1943

B. The Dumbarton Oaks Conference

C. The Declaration by United Nations, 1942

D. The San Francisco Conference

Answer: C

18. How many nations initially signed the Declaration by United Nations on 1 January 1942?

A. 24

B. 26

C. 44

D. 50

Answer: B

19. The Moscow Conference of 1943 involved the Foreign Ministers of:

A. Britain, France, the United States and China

B. Britain, the United States, the Soviet Union and China

C. Britain, Germany, the Soviet Union and China

D. France, the United States, the Soviet Union and China

Answer: B

20. Which event may be regarded as the first formal commitment by the major Allied powers to establish a general international organisation after the Second World War?

A. Moscow Declaration, 1943

B. Declaration by United Nations, 1942

C. Atlantic Charter

D. San Francisco Conference

Answer: A

V. Despite development by leaps and bounds, India is still, primarily, an agrarian economy, and the backbone of our progress is in the villages and the toiling day and night of our farmers. Bovines, cows, bulls, and other animals are indispensable features of this economy. In fact, not just of the economy, but of the overall village environment, and development of all living beings, more so, the humans. Right from the inception of our Constitutional Republic, this reality has been given due recognition. Article 48 of the Constitution of India implores us to organise agriculture and animal husbandry on modern methods as also prevent the slaughter of cows and calves. By virtue of being a Directive Principle of State Policy, it imposes a duty on the State to make policies to further its objective. Granted that the present case and other cases of motor accidents are not ‘slaughter’ within the literal sense of the term, but the end result is that either they or humans lose their lives and hence, it is a serious problem that calls for attention. After all, they are not meant to be natural speed breakers, placed willy-nilly on the National Highways, roads and streets.

[Extracted from Nisha v. Municipal Council, Sangrur & Ors., 2026 INSC 774]

21. According to the passage, Article 48 of the Constitution of India primarily requires the State to:

A. Prohibit all forms of animal ownership

B. Organise agriculture and animal husbandry on modern methods and prevent the slaughter of cows and calves

C. Establish shelters for all stray animals

D. Transfer animal husbandry exclusively to local governments

Answer: B

22. Article 48 of the Constitution forms part of:

A. Fundamental Rights

B. Fundamental Duties

C. Directive Principles of State Policy

D. Emergency Provisions

Answer: C

23. The phrase “natural speed breakers” in the passage is used to convey that:

A. Animals should be deliberately positioned on roads to control speed.

B. Animals wandering on roads cannot be treated as ordinary obstacles to traffic.

C. Highways should have more speed breakers in rural areas.

D. Bovines are naturally adapted to regulating traffic.

Answer: B

24. The idea of Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution was primarily borrowed from the Constitution of:

A. United States of America

B. Australia

C. Canada

D. Ireland

Answer: D

25. In State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan (1951), the Supreme Court initially held that:

A. Directive Principles prevail over Fundamental Rights.

B. Fundamental Rights prevail over Directive Principles in case of conflict.

C. Both are judicially enforceable.

D. Directive Principles form part of the basic structure.

Answer: B

VI. The appellant wants to take advantage of his own wrong. The person who fell in love with the respondent and fathered a girl child who is now almost a major, has come before the Court stating that he is left with no interest in the marriage and therefore, decree of divorce be granted. The marriage under the Hindu Law is a sacrament and it is not a contract. Once the parties are married, the marriage is for life and one person cannot walk away from the marriage on the ground that he/she is left with no interest in the marriage with the other party. We find no ground to interfere with the impugned judgment and decree passed by the Family Court and therefore, we dismiss this appeal.

[Extracted from Manjukiran v. Bindu, NC: 2026:KHC:36045-DB]

26. What was the principal reason advanced by the appellant for seeking divorce?

A. The respondent had deserted him

B. He had lost interest in the marriage

C. The marriage was void from the beginning

D. The parties had mutually agreed to separate

Answer: B

27. Marriage under Hindu Law is regarded as:

A. A commercial arrangement

B. A civil contract

C. A sacrament

D. A temporary legal relationship

Answer: C

28. Which of the following is a recognised ground of divorce under Section 13?

A. Cruelty

B. Mere boredom with marriage

C. Loss of interest without more

D. Difference in political opinion

Answer: A

29. Which case held that a Hindu husband cannot escape the consequences of bigamy merely by converting to Islam and contracting a second marriage while the first marriage subsists?

A. Sarla Mudgal v. Union of India

B. Shafin Jahan v. Asokan K.M.

C. Lata Singh v. State of U.P.

D. Seema v. Ashwani Kumar

Answer: A

30. In Lata Singh v. State of U.P., the Supreme Court affirmed that:

A. An adult requires parental consent to marry

B. Marriage requires approval of the community

C. Inter-caste marriages are invalid under Hindu law

D. A major is free to marry a person of his or her choice

Answer: D

VII. Prima facie it appears that the High Court misconstrued the expression “execution of any document, not being a Will” appearing in the proviso to Section 68 of the Evidence Act. The High Court construed “execution of any document” to include a registered sale deed also. We are of the view that the High Court committed an error in understanding the true purport of the proviso to Section 68 of the Evidence Act. The “execution of any document, except a Will” means those documents which require compulsory attestation like a Gift deed, Mortgage deed, Settlement deed, etc., but it is not mandatory to examine any attesting witnesses in proof of such documents unless its execution is specifically denied. In the case of a Will, the examination of one of the attesting witnesses is a necessary requirement, irrespective of whether its execution has been specifically denied or not. This is all that the proviso to Section 68 of the Evidence Act seeks to convey or clarify.

[Extracted from R. Veronica & Anr. v. Rudrayani Devaki (D) Through LRs. S. Satha Kumar & Ors., 2026 INSC 703]

31. For proving a Will, the passage states that examination of:

A. The testator is always necessary

B. The registering officer is necessary

C. One of the attesting witnesses is necessary

D. Both attesting witnesses is invariably necessary

Answer: C

32. Under Section 67 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, when a document is required by law to be attested, it shall not be used as evidence until:

A. The executant appears personally before the Court

B. At least one attesting witness has been called to prove its execution, subject to the statutory conditions

C. All attesting witnesses have been examined

D. The document has been registered

Answer: B

33. Section 68 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, dealing with proof of execution of a document required by law to be attested, corresponds to which provision of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

A. Section 65

B. Section 66

C. Section 67

D. Section 68

Answer: C

34. Consider the following statements:

1. A gift of immovable property requires a registered instrument.

2. The instrument must be attested by at least two witnesses.

3. Acceptance by or on behalf of the donee is essential.

4. Consideration is essential for a valid gift.

Which of the above are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

35. A gift is said to be onerous when:

A. It is accompanied by a burden or obligation

B. It is made without registration

C. It is made to more than one donee

D. It consists of future property

Answer: A

VIII. It must also be noted that Section 376D of the Indian Penal Code, under which the appellant-convict has been sentenced, was introduced through the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 (Act 13 of 2013), enacted in the aftermath of the horrific Nirbhaya incident in the national capital. The provision prescribed a minimum sentence of twenty years’ imprisonment, which could extend to imprisonment for life for the remainder of the convict’s natural life, the sentence imposed upon the appellant-convict in the present case.

Considering the gravity of the offence, the Legislature consciously created it as a distinct offence and prescribed a mandatory minimum punishment. Consequently, once a person is convicted under the provision, the Court has no discretion to impose a sentence below the statutory minimum.

Significantly, the discretion earlier available to courts under the proviso to the unamended Section 376 IPC to impose a lesser sentence by recording “adequate and special reasons” was taken away. This legislative change reflects the Legislature’s recognition of the seriousness of the offence and the corresponding need for stringent punishment. Courts are therefore bound to give effect to the sentencing framework prescribed by the Legislature.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from Ehsaan v. State (NCT of Delhi), 2026 INSC 720]

36. The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 was enacted in the aftermath of:

A. Nirbhaya incident

B. Mathura rape case

C. Vishaka case

D. Shakti Mills case

Answer: A

37. Section 70(1) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals with:

A. Rape

B. Punishment for rape

C. Gang rape of a woman

D. Repeat offenders

Answer: C

38. In addition to imprisonment, a person convicted under Section 70(1) BNS is also liable to:

A. Community service

B. Fine

C. Forfeiture of all property compulsorily

D. Preventive detention

Answer: B

39. The punishment under Section 70(2) BNS for gang rape of a woman under eighteen years of age is:

A. Minimum 10 years’ imprisonment

B. Minimum 20 years’ imprisonment only

C. Imprisonment for life for the remainder of natural life, and fine, or death

D. Death penalty only

Answer: C

40. Which of the following correctly distinguishes Sections 70 and 71 of the BNS?

A. Section 70 deals with rape and Section 71 with gang rape

B. Section 70 deals with gang rape and Section 71 with punishment for repeat offenders

C. Section 70 deals with sexual harassment and Section 71 with rape

D. Both provisions deal exclusively with gang rape

Answer: B

IX. On the issue of clean hands, the High Court noted that the complaint dated 27.12.2005 had been instituted solely by Plaintiff No. 2 and not by Plaintiff No. 1, who was the actual vendee. The High Court further accepted the Plaintiffs’ contention that the complaint was a counterblast to the complaint lodged by Defendant No. 1, which had deliberately been filed before a court at Madurai lacking territorial jurisdiction.

The High Court also observed that proceedings arising from a criminal complaint could not provide the remedy of specific performance, and the complainant could, at best, seek recovery of money. Therefore, the mere fact that recovery of money had been sought in such proceedings could not be construed as a waiver or abandonment of the contractual right within the meaning of Section 63 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from V.N.A.S. Chandran v. S. Venila & Others, 2026 INSC 776]

41. The High Court held that merely seeking recovery of money in the criminal proceedings amounted to:

A. An express waiver of the right to specific performance

B. Abandonment of the underlying contract

C. Novation of the original contract

D. Neither waiver nor abandonment of the contractual right

Answer: D

42. As per the illustration to Section 63 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, A owes B ₹5,000. B accepts ₹2,000 in full satisfaction of the debt. What is the legal effect?

A. A remains liable to pay ₹3,000

B. The whole debt of ₹5,000 is discharged

C. The agreement is void for want of consideration

D. The debt is discharged only if the agreement is registered

Answer: B

43. The principle embodied in Section 63 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 primarily concerns:

A. Novation and alteration

B. Rescission of voidable contracts

C. Remission, waiver and extension of performance by the promisee

D. Compensation for breach of contract

Answer: C

44. A contract expressly permits an act that a statute prohibits in the public interest. Subsequently, one party argues that the other had waived the statutory objection. Applying the Waman Shriniwas Kini Case, which is most accurate?

A. The waiver necessarily validates the contract

B. The statutory prohibition can always be waived by mutual consent

C. The court cannot enforce an agreement that would amount to enforcement of the prohibited act

D. The agreement becomes voidable only at the option of the government

Answer: C

45. Assertion (A): A person is ordinarily at liberty to waive a right available for his own benefit.

Reason (R): Every statutory prohibition can therefore be waived by private agreement.

Choose the Correct Option:

A. Both A and R are true, and R explains A

B. Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A

B. A is false, but R is true

D. A is true, but R is false

Answer: D

X. Articles 19 and 21 of the Constitution of India inter alia contemplates that not only the citizens have the freedom of speech and expression, but they also have the right to live with dignity.

The action taken by the Respondent–State of Maharashtra of externing the Petitioner, merely for opposing certain decisions of the Government of India, affects the Petitioner’s fundamental right of freedom of speech and expression and also right to live with dignity.

[Extracted from Saeed Ahmad Abdul Wahid Chaudhary v. State of Maharashtra & Anr., Writ Petition No. 1700 of 2026]

46. The right to live with dignity has been judicially recognised as an integral part of:

A. Article 14

B. Article 19(1)(a)

C. Article 21

D. Article 32

Answer: C

47. Which of the following propositions regarding the right to life under Article 21 is most accurate?

A. “Life” means only protection against physical extinction

B. Article 21 protects mere animal existence but not dignity

C. Socio-economic dimensions can never fall within Article 21

D. The expression “life” has been judicially interpreted to include living with human dignity

Answer: D

48. A citizen claims an unrestricted constitutional right to hold a public meeting on a busy public road at any place and time of their choosing. Which proposition is most accurate?

A. Article 19(1)(b) creates an absolute right to use every public place for assembly

B. Peaceful assembly is protected, but it is subject to reasonable restrictions under Article 19(3)

C. Public assemblies are protected only by Article 21

D. Article 19(1)(b) protects assemblies even when participants carry arms

Answer: B

49. The right “to move freely throughout the territory of India” is guaranteed under:

A. Article 19(1)(a)

B. Article 19(1)(d)

C. Article 19(1)(e)

D. Article 21

Answer: B

50. Which case is particularly associated with the proposition that the right to travel abroad falls within “personal liberty”?

A. Satwant Singh Sawhney v. D. Ramarathnam

B. Romesh Thappar v. State of Madras

C. Bennett Coleman & Co. v. Union of India

D. State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan

Answer: A

XI. Well, under the Constitution, it is not only the State who has a duty towards the animals, but each and every citizen of the country is called upon to have compassion for all living beings. This has been termed a fundamental duty under Part IV-A of the Constitution, which may stricto sensu be not enforceable, but since it is part of the Constitution, the guiding light of the Country, they need to be implemented. The value of living the Constitution and thereby having compassion for all living beings is to be emphasised to all citizens so that each and every word of the Constitution can be translated into reality.

What we have said above has, in some sense, been observed by a Seven-Judge Bench of this Court in State of Gujarat v. Mirzapur Moti Kureshi Kassab Jamat, as follows:

‘By enacting clause (g) in Article 51-A and giving it the status of a fundamental duty, one of the objects sought to be achieved by Parliament is to ensure that the spirit and message of Articles 48 and 48-A are honoured as a fundamental duty of every citizen………..

[Extracted from Nisha v. Municipal Council, Sangrur & Ors. (2026 INSC 774)]

51. According to the passage, the constitutional duty to have compassion for all living creatures is imposed upon:

A. Only the State

B. Only persons owning or keeping animals

C. Every citizen of India

D. Only public authorities dealing with animal welfare

Answer: C

52. The Fundamental Duties were incorporated into the Constitution primarily on the recommendation of the:

A. Sarkaria Commission

B. Punchhi Commission

C. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

D. Swaran Singh Committee

Answer: D

53. Part IV-A of the Constitution of India deals with:

A. Fundamental Rights

B. Directive Principles of State Policy

C. Fundamental Duties

D. Emergency Provisions

Answer: C

54. State of Gujarat v. Mirzapur Moti Kureshi Kassab Jamat, as referred to in the passage, was decided by a:

A. Three-Judge Bench

B. Five-Judge Bench

C. Nine-Judge Bench

D. Seven-Judge Bench

Answer: D

55. Article 51A(g) was inserted into the Constitution by the:

A. Constitution (24th Amendment) Act, 1971

B. Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976

C. Constitution (44th Amendment) Act, 1978

D. Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002

Answer: B

XII. If the date of promotion falls after 30.11.2012, when the Division Bench of the High Court directed his reinstatement in Writ Appeal No. 506 of 2011, he shall be entitled to full back wages from the date of such promotion until his retirement as Deputy Commandant. However, if the date of promotion falls before 30.11.2012, the benefits for the period preceding 30.11.2012 shall be treated as notional, while back wages shall be payable from 30.11.2012 onwards. His retirement benefits shall also be recalculated by taking into account the increments to which he would have been entitled in the higher pay scale, and the consequential arrears, including arrears of pension, shall be paid accordingly.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from Prakash Kumar Dixit v. Ajay Kumar Bhalla & Ors., 2026 INSC 725]

56. For computing retirement benefits, the Court directed that:

A. Only the employee’s last actually drawn salary should be considered

B. Increments in the higher pay scale to which the employee was entitled should be taken into account

C. Notional increments cannot be considered for pension

D. Retirement benefits should remain unaffected by the promotion

Answer: B

57. If the employee’s promotion date falls prior to 30.11.2012, how is the period before 30.11.2012 to be treated?

A. As a period carrying full back wages

B. As a period carrying half back wages

C. As a notional period without actual back wages

D. As a break in service

Answer: C

58. Under the Code on Wages, 2019, “wages” expressly includes which of the following?

A. House rent allowance

B. Conveyance allowance

C. Dearness allowance

D. Employer’s contribution to provident fund

Answer: C

59. A sum paid to an employee specifically to meet special expenses necessitated by the nature of employment is:

A. Excluded from wages

B. Included in wages as basic pay

C. Treated as dearness allowance

D. Treated as retaining allowance

Answer: A

60. Which new Labour Code primarily consolidates laws relating to trade unions, conditions of employment in industrial establishments and investigation and settlement of industrial disputes?

A. Code on Wages, 2019

B. Industrial Relations Code, 2020

C. Code on Social Security, 2020

D. OSHWC Code, 2020

Answer: B

XIII. On a close scrutiny of the scheme of the GST regime, it is evident that Section 16(2)(c) of the CGST Act cannot be equated with the VAT regime, particularly with Section 9(2)(g) of the DVAT Act, as examined by the Delhi High Court in On Quest Merchandising India (P) Ltd. (supra). It is also noticed that the Tripura High Court, while following in the case of On Quest Merchandising India (P) Ltd. (supra), has read down Section 16(2)(c) of the CGST Act on the ground of practical impossibility for the purchaser to ensure that the supplier has deposited tax. With respect, we are unable to agree with the said view. The Tripura High Court proceeded on the premise that ITC is intended solely to avoid double taxation under the CGST regime, but did not adequately consider the interplay of Sections 41 and 53 of the CGST Act read with Rule 37A of the CGST Rules, 2017.

[Extracted from Bhandari Scrap Traders v. Union of India & Ors., Special Leave to Appeal (C) No. 23931/2026]

61. According to the passage, Section 16(2)(c) of the CGST Act cannot be equated with which provision?

A. Section 9(2)(g) of the DVAT Act

B. Section 41 of the CGST Act

C. Section 53 of the CGST Act

D. Rule 37A of the CGST Rules

Answer: A

62. The Delhi High Court examined Section 9(2)(g) of the DVAT Act in which case?

A. Eicher Motors Ltd. v. Union of India

B. On Quest Merchandising India (P) Ltd.

C. Jayam & Co. v. Assistant Commissioner

D. ALD Automotive Pvt. Ltd. v. Commercial Tax Officer

Answer: B

63. The Tripura High Court proceeded on the premise that ITC is intended:

A. Solely to increase tax revenue.

B. Solely to avoid double taxation under the CGST regime.

C. To eliminate the requirement of tax payment by suppliers.

D. To confer an unconditional benefit upon every registered purchaser.

Answer: B

64. Which provision is at the centre of the controversy discussed in the passage?

A. Section 16(2)(c) of the CGST Act

B. Section 53 of the DVAT Act

C. Section 37A of the CGST Act

D. Section 41 of the DVAT Act

Answer: A

65. Which combination of provisions, according to the passage, was not adequately considered by the Tripura High Court?

A. Sections 16 and 17 read with Rule 36

B. Sections 41 and 53 read with Rule 37A

C. Sections 73 and 74 read with Rule 86A

D. Sections 49 and 50 read with Rule 42

Answer: B

XIV. The National Company Law Tribunal, after considering the material placed before it, concluded that a financial debt was due and that a default had occurred. Consequently, by its order dated 28 August 2024, the Tribunal admitted the application filed under Section 7 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, appointed an Interim Resolution Professional (IRP) and brought the statutory moratorium under Section 14 into operation.

Challenging the admission of the insolvency application, the appellant approached the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal by filing Company Appeal (AT) (Insolvency) No. 1808 of 2024. The appellant principally argued that the NCLT had overlooked the effect of corporate restructuring under which its liabilities had allegedly stood transferred to another company pursuant to a scheme of demerger followed by amalgamation. It was also asserted that the renewed sanction letter dated 18 November 2017 contained no reference to the guarantee. According to the appellant, this omission indicated that the guarantee had been given up and could no longer be invoked.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from Pooja Ramesh Singh v. Jammu and Kashmir Bank Ltd. & Anr., Civil Appeal No. 11950 of 2025]

66. Which of the following correctly distinguishes a demerger from an amalgamation?

A. A demerger necessarily results in liquidation of every participating company.

B. An amalgamation can never involve transfer of liabilities.

C. A demerger ordinarily involves transfer of an undertaking or business division, whereas an amalgamation involves combination of companies pursuant to a scheme.

D. Both terms have exactly the same legal meaning under company law.

Answer: C

67. Which of the following correctly matches the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013?

A. Section 230 — Fast-track merger

B. Section 232 — Merger and amalgamation

C. Section 233 — Cross-border merger

D. Section 234 — Purchase of minority shareholding

Answer: B

68. A scheme of demerger provides that specified liabilities relating to Undertaking X shall stand transferred to Company B. After the scheme becomes effective, the determination of whether a particular liability has transferred would principally depend upon:

A. The company’s Articles of Association alone

B. The terms and scope of the sanctioned scheme

C. The consent of the Registrar of Companies in every individual case

D. A fresh incorporation certificate

Answer: B

69. The fiduciary position of a director principally requires the director to:

A. Act in good faith and in the interests of the company

B. Always maximise personal remuneration

C. Follow the instructions of majority shareholders in every situation

D. Avoid participating in board meetings

Answer: A

70. A promoter enters into a contract on behalf of a company before the company is incorporated. Such a contract is generally described as:

A. Pre-incorporation contract

B. Post-incorporation contract

C. Ultra vires contract

D. Statutory contract

Answer: A

XV. Environmental law draws a clear distinction between a project proponent who secures the required prior environmental clearance before commencing a project and one who proceeds with construction, expansion or operation without complying with that statutory requirement. At the same time, every violator cannot necessarily be treated alike. A project undertaken in overriding public interest, safeguarding innocent third-party interests, providing an essential public utility, or furthering an environmental objective may constitute a distinct category from a project pursued solely for private commercial benefit. However, any such classification must have a rational connection with the purpose of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Merely showing that a project is otherwise legally permissible, or that the violator is prepared to pay environmental compensation, cannot by itself constitute a valid basis for differential treatment. Such an approach would effectively place a person who violated the requirement of prior clearance on nearly the same footing as one who complied with the law from the outset.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from Vanashakti v. Union of India, Writ Petition (C) No. 1394 of 2023]

71. The requirement of obtaining prior Environmental Clearance before commencement of certain projects primarily reflects which environmental principle?

A. Polluter Pays Principle

B. Precautionary Principle

C. Public Trust Doctrine

D. Absolute Liability

Answer: B

72. The Public Trust Doctrine was prominently applied by the Supreme Court in:

A. M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath

B. A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras

C. Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India

D. Indra Sawhney v. Union of India

Answer: A

73. Which of the following correctly distinguishes the Precautionary Principle from the Polluter Pays Principle?

A. Both principles operate only after environmental damage has occurred.

B. Precaution focuses principally on preventing uncertain environmental harm, while Polluter Pays places the financial burden of pollution and remediation on the polluter.

C. Polluter Pays prevents development, while Precaution permits unrestricted development.

D. There is no conceptual distinction between them.

Answer: B

74. According to the passage, which of the following provides the strongest basis for distinguishing between different categories of environmental violators?

A. The financial capacity of the project proponent to pay compensation

B. The fact that the project is otherwise legally permissible

C. The relationship of the classification to the objectives of environmental legislation

D. The commercial value of the project

Answer: C

75. The passage primarily cautions against an approach that:

A. distinguishes between public and private projects in every circumstance

B. imposes environmental obligations upon commercial enterprises

C. substantially equates a violator willing to pay compensation with a proponent who complied with the requirement of prior clearance

D. permits essential public utilities to obtain environmental clearance

Answer: C

XVI. The ordinary intent behind investments in mutual funds is stability and security coupled with profits. KOTAK AMC having represented to the unitholders, who invested in the Schemes, that their investment would be for a fixed term and that the returns would be credited to them on the maturity dates or soon thereafter, it is a roll over in the manner ordained, as noticed, that could have saved it from breach. Since no notification of a proposed roll over was made to the unitholders as well as to SEBI, there was no roll over. The breach is brazen and indefensible.”

[Extracted from Mr. Nilesh Shah & Ors. v. Securities and Exchange Board of India & Anr., Civil Appeal No. 6529 of 2026]

76. What is ordinarily sought by an investor while investing in mutual funds?

A. Only speculative profits

B. Stability and security coupled with profits

C. Guaranteed capital appreciation

D. Complete immunity from market risks

Answer: B

77. Which institution is the principal regulator of mutual funds in India?

A. Securities and Exchange Board of India

B. Reserve Bank of India

C. Ministry of Corporate Affairs exclusively

D. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India

Answer: A

78. The requirement of informing unitholders about a proposed rollover primarily advances which regulatory objective?

A. Investor transparency and informed decision-making

B. Elimination of all investment risks

C. Prevention of competition among mutual funds

D. Guarantee of returns by SEBI

Answer: A

79. Which of the following best describes an Asset Management Company (AMC) in the context of mutual funds?

A. A body exercising the adjudicatory powers of SEBI

B. An entity responsible for managing the investment portfolio of a mutual fund

C. A statutory authority guaranteeing returns to investors

D. A stock exchange exclusively dealing with mutual fund units

Answer: B

80. The requirement of informing unitholders about a proposed rollover primarily advances which regulatory objective?

A. Investor transparency and informed decision-making

B. Elimination of all investment risks

C. Prevention of competition among mutual funds

D. Guarantee of returns by SEBI

Answer: A

XVII. In this background, confining the entirety of the custodial interrogation to the Central Prison, Rajamahendravaram is neither justified nor sustainable on the facts of this case. The offence of custodial death in which the respondent-accused is arraigned is alleged to have been committed at, and in the vicinity of, Krishna Lanka Police Station, Vijayawada; the dead body of the deceased-victim remains untraced; the original hard disks of the CCTV system are yet to be recovered; and it is the specific case of the prosecution that discoveries under Section 23 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (erstwhile Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872) are imminent if the respondent-accused is properly interrogated. The efficacy of this procedure would undoubtedly be dependent upon the investigating officer being able to take the accused to the actual place of discovery, and not merely to interrogate him about it from a distance of 160 kilometers.

[Extracted from The State of Andhra Pradesh v. Suda Suresh Veera Venkata Naga Raju, arising out of SLP (Crl.) No. 12344 of 2026]

81. According to the passage, why was confinement of the entire custodial interrogation to Central Prison, Rajamahendravaram considered inappropriate?

A. Because custodial interrogation can never take place inside a prison

B. Because the alleged offence and possible places of discovery were located around Vijayawada

C. Because the accused had already confessed to the offence

D. Because the prison authorities refused to cooperate

Answer: B

82. Section 23 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, referred to in the passage, broadly corresponds to which provision of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

A. Section 24

B. Section 25

C. Section 27

D. Section 32

Answer: C

83. Which of the following remained unrecovered according to the passage?

A. The accused’s service records

B. The deceased’s mobile phone alone

C. The dead body and original CCTV hard disks

D. The police station diary

Answer: C

84. An accused in police custody says, “The stolen jewellery is hidden inside a box in my farmhouse.” Police recover the jewellery from the stated location. Which proposition is most accurate?

A. The relevant discovery-related information may be proved

B. The statement is wholly inadmissible merely because it was made in police custody

C. The entire statement automatically becomes a judicial confession

D. Recovery has no evidentiary relevance

Answer: A

85. A confession made in police custody may be proved when it is made in the immediate presence of:

A. A lawyer

B. A Magistrate

C. Two independent witnesses

D. A senior police officer

Answer: B

XVIII. The decision of this Court, as set out in this judgment, shall operate in the following terms: all similarly situated Railway Guards across Indian Railways who have traversed the Guard cadre up to Mail/Express Guard and whose MACP claims at Grade Pay Rs. 4600 and Rs. 4800 were denied or withdrawn pursuant to RBE No. 76/2011, RBE No. 142/2012, or any administrative order consistent with this judgment, and who have not already received those benefits pursuant to individual orders that have attained finality and been implemented inter partes, shall have their MACP positions regulated in accordance with the law as declared in this judgment. Employees who have received MACP benefits pursuant to orders of a Tribunal or High Court that have attained finality between the parties concerned and have been implemented shall not be subjected to any recovery or revision on the basis of this judgment.

[Extracted from Union of India and Others v. Harbans Lal Verma, arising out of SLP (C) No. 35363 of 2025]

86. The principle that similarly situated employees should ordinarily receive similar treatment is most closely associated with which constitutional provision?

A. Article 14

B. Article 19(1)(a)

C. Article 20(1)

D. Article 32

Answer: A

87. What is meant by an order attaining “finality inter partes”?

A. The order becomes binding legislation for all persons

B. The dispute stands finally settled between the parties concerned

C. The order can never be interpreted by another court

D. The order automatically becomes a constitutional amendment

Answer: B

88. An employee has already received monetary service benefits under a High Court judgment that attained finality and was implemented. A subsequent judgment adopts a different interpretation of the applicable service rules. Which principle is most relevant to protecting the implemented benefit?

A. Finality of judicial decisions

B. Doctrine of eclipse

C. Pleasure doctrine

D. Pith and substance

Answer: A

89. A Judge of a High Court ordinarily holds office until attaining the age of:

A. 60 years

B. 62 years

C. 65 years

D. 68 years

Answer: B

90. A Judge of a High Court is appointed by:

A. Chief Justice of India

B. Governor of the State

C. President of India

D. Parliament

Answer: C

XIX. The scope of the High Court’s extraordinary writ jurisdiction, particularly while issuing a writ of certiorari under Article 226 of the Constitution, is well settled. In exercising this power, the High Court does not function as an appellate forum against the conclusions reached by subordinate courts or tribunals, especially on questions of fact. It is ordinarily not permissible for the High Court to undertake a fresh assessment of the evidence or substitute its own factual conclusions merely because another view may be possible. Interference under Article 226 is principally warranted where the impugned decision suffers from an error of law, want or excess of jurisdiction, or a manifest and patent illegality.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from Basamma & Anr. v. Goparappa & Ors., arising out of Special Leave Petition (Civil) No. 10183 of 2024]

91. While exercising certiorari jurisdiction under Article 226, the High Court ordinarily:

A. Functions as a regular appellate court

B. Reassesses the entire evidence independently

C. Examines the decision primarily for legal or jurisdictional infirmities

D. Substitutes its factual conclusions whenever another view is possible

Answer: C

92. Which of the following would most appropriately justify interference by the High Court under its certiorari jurisdiction?

A. The High Court considers another factual inference more convincing

B. The tribunal has acted beyond the jurisdiction conferred upon it

C. One witness could have been given greater evidentiary weight

D. The High Court would have reached a different conclusion on the same evidence

Answer: B

93. Which of the following is a recognised ground of judicial review of administrative action?

A. Illegality

B. Irrationality

C. Procedural impropriety

D. All of the above

Answer: D

94. Which of the following may a High Court do in exercise of its powers under Article 227?

A. Call for returns from subordinate courts

B. Make general rules regulating their practice and proceedings

C. Prescribe forms for maintaining books, entries and accounts

D. All of the above

Answer: D

95. The writ of certiorari is essentially:

A. Preventive in nature only

B. Corrective or supervisory in nature

C. Legislative in nature

D. Advisory in nature

Answer: B

XX. There is an urgent need to foster among advocates a stronger sense of collective responsibility for the timely disposal of cases. Reducing judicial pendency cannot be regarded as the responsibility of the courts alone; the Bar has an equally important role in ensuring the efficient administration of justice.

The increasing backlog of cases before District Courts, High Courts and the Supreme Court remains one of the most serious challenges confronting India’s justice delivery system. Although constitutional courts and judges at every level have consistently attempted to address delays and arrears, the problem of pendency is still largely perceived as belonging exclusively to the judiciary. Such an approach overlooks the institutional role of the Bar as an equal partner in the administration of justice.

The traditional description of the Bar and the Bench as the “two wheels of the chariot of justice” must therefore translate into shared responsibility. Reducing pendency requires coordinated planning, institutional commitment and accountability on the part of both lawyers and judges. Lawyers should be adequately trained to work collectively and in cooperation with courts so that justice can be delivered effectively and efficiently.

For this purpose, the Court emphasised the need for continuous professional learning for advocates. Occasional seminars and conferences should be replaced by a more structured and sustained system of legal education after enrolment. The establishment of a full-time National Legal Academy (NLA) for lawyers, comparable to the National Judicial Academy for judges, was suggested. Such an institution could strengthen professional competence, ethical awareness, technological adaptability and long-term institutional planning.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from Ajay Vijh v. Indian Banks Association & Ors., 2026 INSC 670]

96. The passage describes the Bar and the Bench as:

A. Independent pillars of governance

B. Two wheels of the chariot of justice

C. Guardians of parliamentary sovereignty

D. Separate organs of judicial administration

Answer: B

97. The proposed National Legal Academy would primarily be intended for:

A. Judges

B. Law students

C. Advocates

D. Court administrative staff

Answer: C

98. The proposed National Legal Academy for lawyers is compared in the passage with:

A. National Law Universities

B. National Judicial Academy

C. Indian Law Institute

D. State Judicial Academies exclusively

Answer: B

99. The reference to technological adaptability indicates that legal professionals should:

A. Continuously develop skills responsive to developments in legal practice

B. Avoid technological changes affecting legal practice

C. Replace courtroom advocacy entirely with technology

D. Restrict technology to judicial officers

Answer: A

100. The passage suggests replacing episodic seminars and conferences with:

A. A structured and sustained system of professional learning

B. Mandatory university education for all advocates

C. Judicial examinations every five years

D. Compulsory internships under judges

Answer: A

XXI. According to this rule, when two persons are negligent, that one of them, who had the later opportunity of avoiding the accident by taking ordinary care should be liable for the loss. It means that if the defendant is negligent and the plaintiff having a later opportunity to avoid the consequences of the negligence of the defendant does not observe ordinary care, he cannot make the defendant liable for that. Similarly, if the last opportunity to avoid the accident is with the defendant, he will be liable for the whole of the loss to the plaintiff. The case of Davies v. Mann, explains the rule. In that case, the plaintiff fettered the forefeet of his donkey and left it on a narrow highway. The defendant was driving his wagon driven by horses too fast that it negligently ran over and killed the donkey. In spite of his own negligence, the plaintiff was held entitled to recover because the defendant had the ‘last opportunity’ to avoid the accident. If that were not so, said Parke, B, “a man might justify the driving over goods left on a public highway or even over a man lying asleep there, or purposely running against a carriage going on the wrong side of the road.” The above stated case was approved by the House of Lords in Radley v. L. & N. W.R. Ry. There the plaintiffs were the colliery proprietors and they also owned a bridge near the siding from under which trucks loaded with coal used to be taken by the defendants. One day, the plaintiffs loaded a truck so high that the same was obstructed by the bridge. Without trying to see what caused the obstruction, the defendants’ servant gave momentum to the engine and also got the overloaded truck pushed by many other trucks of the defendants to make the truck pass under the bridge.

[Extracted from R.K. Bangia’s The Law of Torts, revised by Dr. Narender Kumar, Allahabad Law Agency, Faridabad (Haryana)]

101. The “Last Opportunity Rule” is primarily associated with which branch of law?

A. Contract law

B. Law of Torts

C. Criminal law

D. Constitutional law

Answer: B

102. Which case is classically associated with the Last Opportunity Rule?

A. Rylands v. Fletcher

B. Donoghue v. Stevenson

C. Davies v. Mann

D. Ashby v. White

Answer: C

103. In Radley v. L. & N.W.R. Ry., the immediate difficulty arose because:*

A. A railway signal had malfunctioned

B. A truck was loaded so high that it was obstructed by a bridge

C. A passenger entered a moving train

D. A railway employee negligently abandoned a wagon

Answer: B

104. According to the Last Opportunity Rule, where both parties have been negligent, liability generally falls upon:

A. The party who was negligent first

B. The party who suffered greater loss

C. The party who had the later opportunity to avoid the accident by exercising ordinary care

D. Both parties equally in every case

Answer: C

105. In Davies v. Mann, the plaintiff had negligently:

A. Driven his wagon at excessive speed

B. Left his donkey fettered on a highway

C. Failed to maintain a bridge

D. Left his horse unattended outside a stable

Answer: B

XXII. This Court is therefore of the view that the custodial death of the petitioner’s son, being unnatural, attracts liability. The State, as custodian of life and liberty, is bound to compensate the next of kin for the infringement of fundamental rights under Article 21. The entitlement of the petitioner to compensation is thus beyond dispute. Having held that compensation is payable, the next question that arises is the determination of its quantum.

As regards the quantum of compensation to which the petitioner in the present case is entitled, learned counsel for the petitioner has submitted that the principle of multiplier, as devised in Sarla Verma (supra) ought to be applied. Per contra, learned counsel for the respondents, relying upon the dicta laid down in Shakila v. State (supra) contended that compensation must be confined to the statutory framework under Section 357A CrPC and the Delhi Victims Compensation Scheme, 2018.

106. According to the passage, an unnatural custodial death primarily gives rise to which constitutional consequence?

A. Automatic criminal conviction of the custodial officers

B. Liability of the State to compensate the next of kin for infringement of Article 21

C. Compensation only under private law

D. Automatic dismissal of the concerned police officials

Answer: B

107. In the passage, the petitioner relied upon the principle evolved in Sarla Verma primarily for determining:

A. Criminal liability

B. Territorial jurisdiction

C. Quantum of compensation

D. Admissibility of evidence

Answer: C

108. When a court imposes a sentence of fine, it may direct the whole or part of the fine to be used for:

A. Payment of compensation for loss or injury caused by the offence

B. Payment of salary to prosecution witnesses

C. Payment of court establishment expenses

D. Payment only to the State Government

Answer: A

109. Which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 substantially corresponds to Section 395 BNSS?

A. Section 357 CrPC

B. Section 357A CrPC

C. Section 358 CrPC

D. Section 359 CrPC

Answer: A

110. Which of the following courts can also pass an order for compensation under Section 395 BNSS?

A. Only the trial court

B. Only the High Court

C. Appellate Court and the High Court or Court of Session exercising revisional powers

D. Only the Supreme Court

Answer: C

XXIII. The Paris Agreement is a landmark legally binding international treaty on climate change – the first to include nearly all nations on earth in a collective pledge to tackle global heating and its worsening impacts.

It was adopted by 195 Parties at the UN Climate Change Conference (COP21) in Paris, France, in December 2015, as a treaty under the UNFCCC framework. It entered into force in November 2016.

When it was first agreed in 2015, it aimed to hold “the increase in the global average temperature to well below 2°C above pre-industrial levels” and pursue efforts “to limit the temperature increase to 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels.”

However, in recent years, all nations in the Paris Agreement have repeatedly agreed and explicitly emphasized at recent COPs their commitment to limiting global warming to 1.5°C by the end of this century.

[Extracted from the website UNFCCC.INT]

111. The Paris Agreement was adopted at which Conference of the Parties?

A. COP15

B. COP18

C. COP21

D. COP26

Answer: C

112. The Paris Agreement was adopted in:

A. December 2014

B. December 2015

C. November 2016

D. December 2017

Answer: B

113. The Paris Agreement was adopted as a treaty under the framework of:

A. Convention on Biological Diversity

B. Kyoto Protocol

C. UNFCCC

D. Montreal Protocol

Answer: C

114. The Paris Agreement entered into force in:

A. December 2015

B. January 2016

C. November 2016

D. January 2017

Answer: C

115. At the time of its adoption, the Paris Agreement sought to hold the increase in global average temperature:

A. Well below 2°C above pre-industrial levels

B. Below 1°C above pre-industrial levels

C. Exactly at 2°C above pre-industrial levels

D. Below 3°C above pre-industrial levels

Answer: A

XXIV. After the Second World War, the Nuremberg and Tokyo trials addressed war crimes, crimes against peace, and crimes against humanity committed during the Second World War.

The ad hoc tribunals and UN-assisted tribunals have contributed to combating impunity and promoting accountability for the most serious crimes. In the 1990s, after the end of the Cold War, the International Criminal Tribunals for the former Yugoslavia (ICTY) (1993-2017) and for Rwanda (ICTR) (1994-2015) were established to try crimes committed within a specific time-frame and during a specific conflict. This applies, as well, to three courts established by the states concerned, but with substantial UN support: the Special Court for Sierra Leone (2002-2013), the Extraordinary Chambers in the Courts of Cambodia (2006-2022) and the Special Tribunal for Lebanon (2007-2023). They are non-permanent institutions, which cease to exist once all their cases are heard. Except for the Special Tribunal for Lebanon, which completed its work on 31 December 2023, the rest are now in residual mode – carrying out essential functions after the completion of their mandates. The residual functions for the ICTY and ICTR are carried out by the Mechanism for International Criminal Tribunals.

[Extracted from United Nations (UN.org)]

116. The Nuremberg and Tokyo trials primarily dealt with:

A. Piracy and transnational organised crime

B. War crimes, crimes against peace, and crimes against humanity

C. Human rights violations committed during the Cold War

D. Territorial disputes arising after the Second World War

Answer: B

117. The ICTY and ICTR were established primarily to:

A. Exercise permanent universal criminal jurisdiction

B. Try crimes committed within a specific time-frame and conflict

C. Replace domestic criminal courts

D. Adjudicate disputes between States

Answer: B

118. Which of the following correctly matches the tribunal with its period of operation?

A. ICTY — 1994-2015

B. ICTR — 1993-2017

C. Special Court for Sierra Leone — 2002-2013

D. Special Tribunal for Lebanon — 2006-2022

Answer: C

119. Which of the following was established by the concerned State with substantial UN support?

A. Nuremberg Tribunal

B. International Criminal Tribunal for Rwanda

C. International Criminal Tribunal for the former Yugoslavia

D. Extraordinary Chambers in the Courts of Cambodia

Answer: D

120. Which tribunal completed its work on 31 December 2023?

A. ICTY

B. ICTR

C. Special Court for Sierra Leone

D. Special Tribunal for Lebanon

Answer: D